ACTEXAM446 | College Bound Tutoring

ACT Diagnostic Exam

Welcome to your first online diagnostic ACT exam. We will use this exam to identify your strengths and weaknesses, allowing us to match you with the perfect instructor. This instructor will leverage your strengths to address any areas in need of improvement. If you'd like to view any images more clearly during the exam, simply click on the picture to zoom in or out. We encourage you to time yourself accurately as if this was the real exam. If you encounter a question you don't know, please refrain from guessing and leave it blank. This will enable your instructor to focus on the specific concepts that require attention. Thank you for choosing College Bound Tutoring. We look forward to working with you and are always available to answer any questions you may have. Please don't hesitate to reach out to us.

75 QUESTIONS 45 MINUTES

In the five passages that follow, certain words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the
right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the underlined part. In most cases, you are to
choose the one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement appropriate for standard written
English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the passage as a whole. If you
think the original version is best, choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find a
question about the underlined part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also find questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole.
These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but rather are identified by a
number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider best and bubble in the corresponding
answer choice. Read each passage through once before you begin to answer the questions that
accompany it. For many of the questions, you must read several sentences beyond the question to
determine the answer. Be sure that you have read far enough ahead each time you choose an
alternative.

1 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) blunderbusses; pillaging

C) blunderbusses, pillaging

D) blunderbusses pillaging

2 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) over

C) through

D) beyond

3 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) have portrayed

C) is going to portray

D) portrayed

4 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) better known as Blackbeard,

C) whom many know as Blackbeard,

D) the one they call Blackbeard,

5 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) because she's

C) whereas she is

D) despite being

6 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) The early years of Ching Shih's life, born in 1775, were spent in obscurity.

C) Born in 1775, Ching Shih spent the early years of her life in obscurity.

D) The early years, in 1775, of Ching Shih's life, were spent in obscurity.

7 / 214

(7)Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion?

A) persuasion when she negotiated

B) persuasion, negotiating

C) persuasion; she negotiated

D) persuasion, using these skills to negotiate

8 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) deposed

C) imposed

D) composed

9 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) rules;one,

C) rules, one,

D) rules: one,

10 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) three, presenting all stolen booty for collection was required.

C) three, after presenting all stolen booty, it would be collected.

D) three, Ching Shih required the pirates to present all stolen booty for collection.

11 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) was set

C) was setting

D) set

12 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) there navies

C) their navies

D) they're navy's

13 / 214

Which choice results in the most effective transition from the preceding paragraph to the information that follows?

A) NO CHANGE

B) Ching Shih retired gracefully, proving that piracy could be profitable, even for women.

C) Ching Shih was not the only female pirate, but is certainly a notable example.

D) Ching Shih’s career as a pirate inspired other women to pursue a life on the seas.

14 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) Additionally, in many cultures, women were also barred from such activities as governing and owning land.

C) Women were also barred from governing and owning land.

D) DELETE the underlined portion

15 / 214

Which choice best concludes the passage and recalls an example given early in the passage?

A) NO CHANGE

B) female pirates showed their ability as swashbuckling buccaneers.

C) Jack Sparrow fails to represent the women at the helm of pirate ships.

D) female pirates like Ching Shih ruled the seas for thousands of years.

16 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) which is what is often used today.

C) used today.

D) DELETE the underlined portion

17 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) whom ran

C) who was running

D) whom was running

18 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) Unlike some of the food found on food trucks today, the chuckwagon provided simple meals

C) Unlike some food trucks today, the chuckwagon provided simple meals

D) Unlike some of the food trucks today, meals that the chuckwagon provided were simple,

19 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) beans, salted, meats, cornmeal, and coffee.

C) beans salted meats, cornmeal and coffee.

D) beans, salted meats, cornmeal, and coffee.

20 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) wagon; parked

C) wagon, parked

D) wagon. He parked

21 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) subsequent to its invention,

C) its invention prompting,

D) reliant on it,

22 / 214

At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence.

Cheap, convenient food drew customers to these trucks.

Should the writer make this addition here?

A) Yes, because it illustrates a general principle discussed in the paragraph.

B) Yes, because it supports the main point of the preceding sentence.

C) No, because it distracts from the focus of the paragraph by introducing irrelevant material.

D) No, because it merely reformulates the thought expressed in the preceding sentence.

23 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) took off because of

C) owes its momentum to

D) increased due to

24 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) restaurant. However, food trucks

C) restaurant, while food trucks

D) restaurant; food trucks

25 / 214

Which choice most effectively sets up the information that follows?

A) NO CHANGE

B) the food being served from the trucks represents many diverse cuisines.

C) many cities now hire the trucks to cater special events.

D) the food trucks provide more than the simple cuisine of the early wagons.

26 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) congregated

C) congregation

D) congregates

27 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) Orlando, Miami and Washington, DC

C) Orlando, Miami, and Washington, DC,

D) Orlando and Miami and Washington DC

28 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) lead in

C) leads in

D) leads to

29 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) that are for the purpose of

C) that are helpful in that they

D) DELETE the underlined portion.

30 / 214

The writer wants a conclusion that addresses the development of the food truck industry over time. Which choice best accomplishes this goal?

A) NO CHANGE

B) From a few wagons serving simple food to cowhands, food trucks have grown into a booming enterprise drawing some of the best culinary minds.

C) For the foreseeable future, the food truck trend seems set to continue.

D) Food trucks provide gourmet food to every demographic for a reasonable price.

31 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) are

C) was

D) were

32 / 214

At this point, the author is considering adding the following sentence:

In the case of textiles, light from a camera’s flash causes harmful chemical reactions and deterioration when absorbed by the cloth’s fibers.

Should this sentence be inserted here?

A) Yes, because it provides the reader with a specific example of a delicate artifact and connects back to the paragraph's opening.

B) Yes, because it helps the reader understand exactly how the light from cameras can damage cloth.

C) No, because the next sentence also contains an example of a delicate artifact.

D) No, because the sentence distracts from the primary focus of the paragraph.

33 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) collection, such as,

C) collections, such as:

D) collections, such as

34 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) color, fading, yellowing, embrittlement, and cracking.

C) color fading, yellowing, embrittlement, and cracking.

D) color fading, yellowing embrittlement, and cracking.

35 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) it's

C) their

D) there

36 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) may have braved

C) braved

D) will be braving

37 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) become

C) became

D) will become

38 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) and

C) but

D) if

39 / 214

The writer is considering deleting the underlined portion (ending the sentence with a period). Should the writer make this deletion?

A) Yes, because it detracts from the paragraph’s main focus with irrelevant detail.

B) Yes, because it repeats information already provided in the passage.

C) No, because it sets up the main topic of the paragraph that follows.

D) No, because it provides a detail that supports the main topic of the sentence.

40 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) As a consequence,

C) Indeed,

D) Morever,

41 / 214

To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 4 should be placed

A) where it is now.

B) before sentence 1.

C) after sentence 1.

D) before sentence 3.

42 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) requires

C) will require

D) had required

43 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) For instance, only artists originally repaired artwork,

C) Due to the fact that only artists repaired artwork originally,

D) Regardless of artists being the only ones originally repairing artwork,

44 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) which

C) it

D) which is the thing that

45 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) conveys to us

C) entrusts us

D) transmits us

46 / 214

The writer wants to give two examples that show the diversity in theories. Which of the following best achieves this goal?

A) NO CHANGE

B) mass lead poisoning to rampant disease

C) religious turmoil to moral decay

D) mass lead poisoning to moral decay

47 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) interpretation—historians

C) interpretation, and historians

D) interpretation, historians

48 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) were

C) ran

D) is

49 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) disease, during the decline of the Roman Empire, McCormick

C) disease. During the decline of the Roman Empire, McCormick

D) disease during the decline of the Roman Empire; McCormick

50 / 214

Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion?

A) (F) in the 6th century, which is named

B) (F) in the 6th century, but is named

C) (F) in the 6th century for which it is named

D) in the 6th century and is named

51 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) ensued

C) was ensued

D) is ensuing

52 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) the Blak Death, the disease

C) the Black Death is the disease

D) the Black Death. The disease

53 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) and

C) as

D) even though

54 / 214

The writer is considering adding the following sentence.

In smaller settlements, the combination of more open space and fewer people could contribute to a continuation of usual burial practices, even in the event of an unrelenting pestilence.

Should the writer make this addition here?

A) Yes, because it establishes the possible link between agrarian societies and lack of mass graves.

B) Yes, because it explains the key role of small communities in obfuscating efforts to estimate plague victims.

C) No, because it detracts from the paragraph’s focus on the devastating effect of the Justinianic Plague.

D) No, because it contradicts the claim made in the preceding sentence that mass mortality events coincide with large, communal burials.

55 / 214

Which choice most effectively maintains the contrast in the sentence and introduces the information that follows?

A) NO CHANGE

B) this discovery required intensive research not yet performed on the Plague of Cyprian microbe.

C) the 3rd century Plague of Cyprian receives much less attention.

D) they have also verified the microbe that caused the 3rd century Plague of Cyprian.

56 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) Given

C) Realizing

D) About

57 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) transmit their genetic information solely through RNA,

C) transmit their only genetic information through RNA exclusively,

D) only transmit their genetic information exclusively through RNA,

58 / 214

Given that all the choices are true, which most effectively introduces the information that follows in the paragraph?

A) The Plague of Cyprian is just one example of an epidemic that destroyed an entire empire.

B) Whatever the cause, the Plague of Cyprian irrevocably changed Roman society.

C) Archeologists working in Thebes have discovered a burial site for ancient plague victims.

D) In a gruesome essay, the Roman bishop Cyprian described the different ways the plague ravaged its victims.

59 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) but also by affecting

C) it also effected

D) it also affected

60 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) Spiritual significance imbued the plague, indicating

C) The plague indicated spiritual significance and

D) Having spiritual significance imbued in it, the plague indicated

61 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) refers to

C) referring to

D) referred to as

62 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) such as a green light.

C) such as a stop sign.

D) such as a plethora of parking spots.

63 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) our

C) their

D) his or her

64 / 214

Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion?

A) negative memories and then, simultaneously, might barely remember

B) negative memories while barely remembering

C) negative memories, therefore barely remembering

D) negative memories leading to the driver barely remembering

65 / 214

Which choice provides the best introduction to the paragraph?

A) NO CHANGE

B) The brain's complex neural network allows humans to process information in astounding ways.

C) People are often categorized according to their proficiency in using each of the hemispheres of the brain.

D) The brain uses two unique systems for recording positive and negative stimuli.

66 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) are then instantaneously stored

C) immediately are stored at once

D) waste no time in being stored

67 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) Although

C) By contrast,

D) Subsequently,

68 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) which

C) and

D) DELETE the underlined portion.

69 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) for record of

C) in recording

D) on recording

70 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) for record of

C) in recording

D) on recording

71 / 214

A) where it is now

B) after sentence 2.

C) after sentence 3.

D) after sentence 4.

72 / 214

At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence.

More primitive humans needed to process and react to negative stimuli much more quickly than positive stimuli.

Should the writer make this addition here?

A) Yes, because it sets up the example that follows.

B) Yes, because it continues the explanation of the neurological basis for the negativity bias.

C) No, because it repeats information provided in the following sentence.

D) No, because it fails to address the unfortunate effects of the negativity bias.

73 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) is widespread.

C) spread widely.

D) spreads widely.

74 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) than there

C) then their

D) then there

75 / 214

A) NO CHANGE

B) because of

C) with regards to

D) regardless of

76 / 214

Which choice most clearly ends the passage with a restatement of the writer’s primary claim?

A) NO CHANGE

B) In every situation, the human brain persistently demonstrates the nuance and complexity of storing and accessing memories.

C) No matter the situation, humans consistently demonstrate their inclination to overemphasize and overvalue negative memories.

D) Everyone has experienced the effects of the negativity bias, which can only be overcome if we dedicate ourselves to positive thinking.

60 QUESTIONS

60 MINUTES

Solve each problem, choose the correct answer, and then bubble in the letter corresponding to that answer choice.

Do not linger over problems that take too much time. Solve as many as you can: then return to the others in the time you have left for this test.

You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You may use your calculator for any problems you choose, but some of the problems may best be done without using a calculator.

Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should be assumed.

Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
Geometric figures lie in a plane.
The word line indicates a straight line.
The word average indicates arithmetic mean

77 / 214

A residential neighborhood is being built at a rate of 6 houses every 4 months. If the neighborhood continues to be built at this rate, how long will it take, in years, for the whole neighborhood to be completed if it contains 45 homes?

A) 2

B) 2.5

C) 3.5

D) 7.5

E) 30

78 / 214

The yearly membership fee for an online retailer is $29. Jacob orders gift packages that cost $12.50 each. For one year, Jacob's membership and gift package costs were $116.50. How many gift packages did Jacob order that year?

A) 3

B) 4

C) 7

D) 9

E) 12

79 / 214

A bike rental shop's rate is $24 a day. A customer wants to rent the bike for 4 days and made a down payment of $30. How much more money does the customer owe?

A) $24

B) $42

C) $56

D) $66

E) $72

80 / 214

Out of the 50 classes offered at a summer math program, 25 of them are Algebra classes, 15 are geometry classes, and the remainder are calculus classes. If a class is randomly selected, what is the probability that it is a calculus class?

A) $1/5$

B) $1/4$

C) $1/3$

D) $2/5$

E) $1/2$

81 / 214

Let b represent the base of a triangle. If the height of a triangle is the same as the base, what is the area of the triangle?

A) $1/4b^2$

B) $1/2^2$

C) $b^2$

D) $1/2b^2 + b$

E) $1/2b^2 + 2b$

82 / 214

A) 30

B) 45

C) 60

D) 75

E) 105

83 / 214

The ratio of the lengths of the corresponding sides of two similar triangles is 1:3. If the area of the larger triangle is 36 square units, what is the area, in square units, of the smaller triangle?

A) 4

B) 12

C) 16

D) 108

E) 324

84 / 214

In the xy-plane, the function of y= |x+5| intersects the line with equation y=3 at two points, R and S. What is the length of line RS?

A) 2

B) 6

C) 8

D) 10

E) 15

85 / 214

If c and d are two distinct solutions to the equation $4x^2 - 64 = 0$, what is the value of c+d?

A) 0

B) 4

C) 8

D) 16

E) 64

86 / 214

A) 25°

B) 50°

C) 80°

D) 90°

E) 100°

87 / 214

Dylan swam for 30 minutes and ran for 45 minutes. If swimming burns 460 calories per hour and running burns 640 per hour, how many calories did Dylan burn swimming and running?

A) 435

B) 440

C) 550

D) 710

E) 875

88 / 214

A) $1/3$

B) $2/3$

C) 1

D) $5/3$

E) $7/3$

89 / 214

Vikram is trimming a photo to fit into a frame. The original photo is 8 inches by 10 inches. If Vikram trimmed enough of the photo that it now has an area of 48 square inches, what are the possible dimensions for the trimmed photo?

A) 4 inches by 12 inches

B) 5 inches by 7 inches

C) 6 inches by 8 inches

D) 7 inches by 17 inches

E) 8 inches by 8 inches

90 / 214

Terrence is cutting large pieces of colored paper into smaller rectangles to make cards. If the colored paper is 16 inches by 23 inches, and he uses pieces that are 4 inches by 5 inches for cards, how many pieces of colored paper does he need to make 40 cards?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 16

E) 20

91 / 214

In preparation for returning to school Amina is buying school supplies. She plans to buy 5 notebooks, 2 containers of pencils, and a calculator. The notebooks cost $1.60 each, the containers of pencils cost $3.20 each, the calculator costs $89, and an 8% sales tax is applied to the total. How much will Amina pay for her school supplies?

A) $8.27

B) $101.30

C) $103.40

D) $111.67

E) $116.86

92 / 214

In the coordinate plane shown, line k is perpendicular to line j. What is the value of a?

A) -2

B) -3

C) -4

D) -5

E) -6

93 / 214

A) 68$15/16$ meters

B) 136$1/16$ meters

C) 137$7/8$ meters

D) 268$3/8$ meters

E) 272$1/8$ meters

94 / 214

A) -24

B) -12

C) -6

D) -5

E) -3

95 / 214

A dance instructor wants to determine how many students, s, she wants to enroll in her class. For each student who enrolls in her class, she will earn $12. She will spend $50 each week renting space to teach her class. If she wants to earn at least $400 per week, which of the following gives the possible values for s?

A) $s≥175/6$

B) $s≥75/2$

C) $s≥45/2$

D) $s≥194/2$

E) $s≥206/25$

96 / 214

A ladder is propped against a wall, making an angle of 72° with the ground. If the ladder is 12 feet high, which of the following gives the distance in feet between the foot of the ladder and the wall?

A) 12 cos(72°)

B) 12 sin(72°)

C) $tan(72°)/12$

D) $sin(72°)/12$

E) $cos(72°)/12$

97 / 214

A) 36 units

B) 42 units

C) 44 units

D) 46 units

E) 48 units

98 / 214

A) 1

B) $3/2$

C) 2

D) $5/2$

E) 4

99 / 214

If f(x)=3x-7, what is f(-4x+1) equal to?

A) -12x-4

B) -12x-6

C) -x-6

D) $-12x^2-4$

E) $-12x^2-6$

100 / 214

Mr. Kress is creating a seating chart for five students to sit in a row. How many different seating arrangements are possible?

A) 5

B) 15

C) 60

D) 120

E) 180

101 / 214

A) y=(x-4)(x+2)

B) $y=(x-9)^2 +1$

C) $y=(x-1)^2 -9$

D) $y=x^2 - 2x-8$

E) These are all equations of the given graph

102 / 214

A) 400

B) 500

C) 550

D) 650

E) 900

103 / 214

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

E) A and D are equal

104 / 214

A) l=40c+260

B) l=40c+360

C) l=50c+200

D) l=50c+240

E) l=60c+140

105 / 214

Arnold has taken 3 tests in Ms.K's math class so far this year. His current test average is 88%. What is the lowest grade he can get on his next test to have an overall test average of 90%?

A) 90%

B) 92%

C) 93%

D) 94%

E) 96%

106 / 214

A) 2√2

B) 2

C) 4

D) 8

E) 8√2

107 / 214

If the mean and median of a set of three numbers, x,y,z are equal and x ≤ y ≤ z, which of the following must be true?

A) x-2y+z = 0

B) x=y=z

C) x+y=z

D) x+y > z

E) $x+y+z/3 = y/2$

108 / 214

The equation $h=-4.9t^2 +9t$ expresses the approximate height, h, in meters, of a toy rocket t seconds after it is launched vertically upward from the ground with an initial velocity of 9 meters per second. Approximately how many seconds pass before the rocket hits the ground?

A) 0.9

B) 1.8

C) 2.1

D) 4.1

E) 4.9

109 / 214

A triangle has side lengths of 14 inches and 8 inches. If the third side is an integer, what is the greatest possible length, in inches of the third side of the triangle?

A) 7

B) 14

C) 16

D) 21

E) 22

110 / 214

A) 81

B) 216

C) 648

D) 1,944

E) 5,832

111 / 214

A) $30sin105°/sin34°$

B) $30sin105°/sin41°$

C) $30sin41°/sin34°$

D) $30/sin105°sin34°$

E) $30/sin41°sin34°$

112 / 214

2x-4y<8 y≥ -x+4 A system of inequalities is shown above. Which of the following ordered pairs could be a solution to this system of inequalities?

A) (1,2)

B) (2,5)

C) (3,-1)

D) (4,0)

E) (-1,-2)

113 / 214

A local train and an express train travel in the same direction on parallel tracks. The local train departs at 8:00 AM, and the express train departs 4 hours later. They both arrive at the same destination at the 6:00PM. If the express train travels 20 miles per hour faster than the local train, how fast does the express train travel, in miles per hour?

A) 30

B) 40

C) 50

D) 60

E) 70

114 / 214

A) 30

B) 32

C) 36

D) 42

E) 48

115 / 214

If r is a rational number, which of the following could be an irrational number?

A) $r^1/2$

B) $3r/11$

C) $r^3$

D) 17-2r

E) $(2/r)^-2$

116 / 214

The product of two integers is between 230 and 247. Which of the following CANNOT be one of the integers?

A) 4

B) 7

C) 15

D) 25

E) 30

117 / 214

A) 2

B) 4

C) 9

D) 16

E) 18

118 / 214

A) 109

B) 119

C) 208

D) 228

E) 360

119 / 214

In circuits, Ohm's Law states that V=IR, where V is the voltage, I is the current, and R is the resistance. According to Ohm's Law, if the voltage is quadrupled and the current is tripled, what value must be multiplied to the resistance?

A) $3/4$

B) $4/3$

C) 3

D) 4

E) 12

120 / 214

In 1 hour, 16.4 liters of water drained from a tank. If the water continues to drain at this same rate, which of the following gives the expression for the number of milliliters of water that will drain from the tank in 2 minutes?

A) $16.4(2)(1,000)/60$

B) $16.4(2)(60)/1000$

C) $16.4(1,000)/2(60)$

D) $2(1,000)/16.4(60)$

E) $60/16.4(2)(1,000)$

121 / 214

A group of 20 students visits a gelato shop. The shop has three flavors. The group gets 31 tastes altogether. If every student gets to taste at least one flavor, what is the greatest number of students who could have tasted all three flavors?

A) 3

B) 4

C) 5

D) 6

E) 11

122 / 214

Let events X,Y, and Z be mutually exclusive events. If P(X)=0.2, P(Y)=0.5, and P(Z)=0.1, what is P(X or Y)?

A) 0.1

B) 0.2

C) 0.5

D) 0.6

E) 0.7

123 / 214

A) 0<a<b

B) a<0<b

C) a<b<0

D) 0<b<a

E) b<0<a

124 / 214

A) All real numbers

B) All real numbers except 2

C) All real numbers greater than -2

D) All real numbers greater than or equal to -3

E) All real numbers greater than or equal to -3 except 2 and -2

125 / 214

A) Choice A

B) Choice B

C) Choice C

D) Choice D

E) Choice E

126 / 214

What is the area, in square units, of the triangle formed by the x-axis, the y-axis and the equation 5x+3y=30

A) 6

B) 10

C) 15

D) 30

E) 60

127 / 214

A) $3/4$

B) 1

C) $4/3$

D) $5/3$

E) 2

128 / 214

What is the value of the 100th term in the sequence shown: 7,13,19,25,...

A) 589

B) 595

C) 601

D) 607

E) 613

129 / 214

I. The hole in the bottom was partly obstructed

II. Someone began pouring water into the container.

III. Someone began drinking from the container.

A) I only

B) II only

C) III only

D) I or II

E) I or III

130 / 214

A neighborhood is choosing a 3 person committee to represent them. If there are 20 residents in then neighborhood, how many different committees can the neighborhood select?

A) 57

B) 1,140

C) 2,280

D) 6,840

E) 8,000

131 / 214

A) -5

B) -3+2i

C) -3+7i

D) -5-i

E) -5+5i

132 / 214

Tashon has been on a hiking trip for three days. If his first day of hiking can be described by a vector (4,5), his second day of hiking by the vector (2,7), and his third day with the vector (5,3), which of the following vectors describes his trajectory from the beginning of his hiking trip to the end of the third day?

A) (9,8)

B) (7,10)

C) (6,12)

D) (10,12)

E) (11,15)

133 / 214

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

E) 16

134 / 214

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 and 3

C) 3 and 4

D) 4 and 5

E) it cannot be determined from the information given.

135 / 214

A meteorologist is comparing the rainfall in three areas. During a rainstorm, Region X received 40% less rain than Region Y, and Region Z received 10% more rain than Region Y. If Region X received 0.72 inches of rain during the rainstorm, how many inches of rain did Region Z receive?

A) 0.48

B) 1.19

C) 1.20

D) 1.32

E) 1.98

40 QUESTIONS

35 MINUTES

There are several passages in this test. Each passage is accompanied by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and bubble in the corresponding answer choice. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary.

136 / 214

Which choice best describes what happens in the passage?

A) One character pursues another character despite the second character’s disapproval of the first.

B) One character remains obedient to another character but hopes the situation will change.

C) One character argues with another character about the future of a third character.

D) One character writes a letter to another character, who responds to it.

137 / 214

Which choice best describes the developmental pattern of the passage?

A) A detailed description of a relationship conflict

B) An in-depth analysis of a father- daughter relationship

C) A humorous recounting of a dramatic situation

D) A thorough narration of a series of letters

138 / 214

As it is used in line 13, the word "keen" can reasonably be said to mean all of the following EXCEPT:

A) sharp

B) strong

C) eager

D) acute

139 / 214

In the passage, Morris views Catherine’s father as

A) a respected doctor.

B) a harsh tyrant

C) an important figuire.

D) a benevolent parent

140 / 214

In lines 37-38, the narrator uses which of the following literary devices to describe Catherine’s hesitation to argue with her father?

A) Similie

B) Alliteration

C) Allusion

D) Personification

141 / 214

As used in line 52, “just” most nearly means

A) appropriate

B) true

C) unbiased

D) deserved

142 / 214

The passage indicates that Catherine intends to resolve her current predicament by

A) defying her father and eloping

B) discussing with her father until he changes his mind

C) waiting patiently until the situation changes

D) sking Mrs. Penniman to intervenea

143 / 214

In the context of the passage, the primary function of lines 59-61 is to

A) help us understand why Catherine’s father disapproves of their relationship

B) reveal Catherine’s assessment of Morris’ character.

C) contradict what Catherine thinks about Morris earlier.

D) provide an example of how Morris is a good person.

144 / 214

As revealed in the passage, Catherine is torn between

A) her love of Morris and her love of her father.

B) her dislike of conflict and her desire to elope.

C) her duty to her father and her affection for Morris.

D) her trust in her father and her belief in Morris’ love.

145 / 214

Which of the following best sums up Penniman's attitude toward Catherine's predicament?

A) She longs to be a wise voice of reason in Catherine's life

B) She encourages Catherine to obey her father unequivocally.

C) She enjoys the drama and isn't ready for the situation to resolve.

D) She thinks Catherine should get married as soon as possible.

146 / 214

It is reasonable to conclude that the author of the passage is

A) determined to remain neutral.

B) illustrating the futility of citizen resistance to powerful governments.

C) an expert in Indian treaty law

D) sympathetic to Native American activists.

147 / 214

The passage makes clear that George and Johnson Meninock, David Sohappy, and Billy Frank, were all

A) members of the Native American resistance.

B) citizens of the Yakama Nation.

C) descendants of the original treaty signers.

D) oral historians who recorded the events of the "Fish Wars."

148 / 214

According to the passage, the "Fish Wars" were a series of

A) demonstrations and protests by Native American activists.

B) bloody skirmishes between Native tribes and angry counter-protestors.

C) treaty violations by the State of Washington.

D) None of the above.

149 / 214

What main effect does line 47 (“He… believed”) have on the message of the passage?

A) Our influence on the future can extend even beyond our death.

B) Determination ultimately pays off.

C) Social justice cannot be denied.

D) Lawmakers eventually do the right thing.

150 / 214

Which of the following could be a possible title for the passage?

A) Fish Wars of the Pacific Northwest

B) Native Protestors on the Front Lines

C) The presidential Medal of Freedom

D) Understanding the Treaty of Yakama

151 / 214

It can most reasonably be inferred that

A) Johnson Meninock was well-educated and had excellent legal skills.

B) the Washington State Legislature is easily influenced by political protest movements.

C) George Meninock was influenced by his father’s experience in 1855.

D) protesting by breaking relevant laws is likely to result in social disgrace.

152 / 214

In line 39, "vacate" most nearly means

A) clear

B) stay

C) exacerbate.

D) reclaim

153 / 214

Which situation is most similar to the one described in paragraph two, lines 15-28 (“However…courts”)?

A) Students complain to the University administration that the faculty are too focused on their own research to teach conscientiously.

B) People file a class-action lawsuit against a car manufacturer that falsely guaranteed that its windshields would shatter harmlessly.

C) Religious leaders preach tolerance and social justice as a core part of their ministry.

D) War veterans write letters to their political representatives requesting the medical benefits to which they are legally entitled.

154 / 214

The author implies that protestors who choose to break laws

A) are unlikely to be punished if their cause is just

B) should change strategies quickly if the results they seek don’t materialize soon.

C) must be well organized and skillfully use the courts and media if they are to succeed.

D) do so to demonstrate the injustice of those laws.

155 / 214

The main purpose of the passage is to

A) urge Indians to peacefully cooperate with British colonial rule.

B) present the varied political problems that plague India.

C) promote nonviolent resistance by Indians against British rule.

D) explain how Gandhi has remained steadfast in his convictions throughout the revolution.

156 / 214

Gandhi addresses his audience on the topic of British colonial rule with

A) indifference, merely stating the current situation in India.

B) anger, fuming at the mistreatment of Indians.

C) objectivity, relating facts about the state of political affairs.

D) ardor, persuading Indians to resist British rule.

157 / 214

As used in line 7, "enjoined" most nearly means

A) combined

B) required

C) needed

D) accepted

158 / 214

Which of the following does Gandhi NOT state in the passage?

A) Violent revolution fails to realize the ideal of democracy.

B) A nation's people should not be hated because of the actions of their government.

C) Democracy should be established through peacable means.

D) Democracy is reliably used to provide equality for all.

159 / 214

According to the passage, Gandhi promotes the idea of “nonviolence” because

A) violence exchanges one form of oppression for another.

B) India cannot afford the costs of violent revolution.

C) nonviolence has been successful throughout history.

D) his religion prohibits the use of violence.

160 / 214

The purpose of paragraph four (lines 51- 60) is to

A) advise against fighting British imperialism.

B) persuade Indians not to despise the British people.

C) encourage everyone to reject any hatred they might feel.

D) describe the despicable nature of British imperialism.

161 / 214

The image in line 79 ("they...abyss") functions figuratively to suggest that

A) the British empire is on the verge of crumbling.

B) the British empire is facing financial problems.

C) British citizens are more likely to suffer from depression.

D) Gandhi is ready to go to war with Great Britain.

162 / 214

Gandhi states that he is “a greater friend of the British now than ever before” (lines 74-75) because he wants to

A) promote reconciliation between Great Britain and India.

B) demonstrate sympathy for the difficulties Britain faces in dealing with Indian protestors.

C) prove himself a better man than the violent Indian protestors who are trying to defeat the British rather than reconcile with them.

D) help the British rectify the error of their ways.

163 / 214

The passage highlights Gandhi's use of

A) sensory detail and vivid description to convey ideas.

B) a first-person point of view to express personal convictions.

C) satire and irony to develop characters.

D) personal invective as a method of critique.

164 / 214

Which choice best describes the structure of the passage?

A) A personal history is narrated and a problem is defined.

B) A problem is defined and a plan of action is delivered and explained.

C) Historical context is given and advice is offered.

D) An argument is presented, an opposite position is argued, and an explanation is given.

165 / 214

As used in line 25, "delicate" most nearly means

A) intricate

B) subtle

C) precarious

D) problematic

166 / 214

The author of Passage 1 indicates that coral bleaching happens when

A) the ocean temperature fluctuates.

B) the zooxanthellae change color.

C) the corals contract diseases.

D) the algae living in the corals are expelled

167 / 214

According to Passage 1, the destruction of coral reefs is primarily caused by

A) coral bleaching

B) environmental changes

C) human harvesting of coral

D) rampant disease

168 / 214

The author of Passage 2 makes clear that positive changes occurring in some coral reefs are often

A) fabricated

B) ignored

C) temporary

D) incremental

169 / 214

In line 78, the word "salient" most nearly means

A) interesting

B) salty

C) important

D) irrelevant

170 / 214

On which of the following points would the authors of both passages most likely agree?

A) Coral reefs are an important ecosystem.

B) Climate change has negatively affected coral reefs

C) Coral reefs will successfully adapt to Earth’s changing climate.

D) Coral reefs require greater protection.

171 / 214

Which of the following statements would the author of Passage 1 most likely agree with?

A) Coral bleaching has caused the destruction of significant portions of the world’s coral reefs, though the extent of the damage varies among specific reefs.

B) While damage varies among specific reef systems, more than half of the world’s reefs are under threat of collapse.

C) Some reef systems have suffered such irreversible damage that now more than half of the world’s coral reefs have been effectively destroyed.

D) (D) Many reef systems remain relatively intact despite climate change; more than half of the world’s reefs are under little threat.

172 / 214

Which statement about coral reef systems is best supported by Passage 2?

A) Damage to coral reefs has been severe in every major reef system.

B) Some coral reef systems have adapted to survive under new environmental conditions.

C) The only healthy coral reef systems are located off the coast of Japan.

D) A few coral reef systems have no threats to their survival.

173 / 214

How would the author of Passage 2 most likely respond to the claims made in Passage 1?

A) All reefs are thriving, refuting the stance that reefs are all dying.

B) Coral reefs are valuable tourist destinations.

C) Passage 1 fails to address the expansion and adaptations of some reefs.

D) Passage 1 correctly indicates that the world's coral reefs are in grave danger.

174 / 214

Which statement most accurately compares the two passages?

A) Passage 2 gives a moderate viewpoint to contrast the radical ideas in Passage 1.

B) Passage 2 proposes a drastic solution to the problems stated in Passage 1.

C) Passage 2 argues a position contrary to the claims made in Passage 1.

D) Passage 2 details research discussed generally in Passage 1.

Science Test

40 Questions - 35 Minutes

There are several passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and bubble in the corresponding answer choice. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary.

You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.

175 / 214

According to Scientist 1, who should benefit from GTA testing and results?

A) The results of GTA testing are meant for the community and should be available for public knowledge.

B) The results of GTA testing are private and need only be seen by the patient and the patient’s doctor.

C) The results of GTA testing should be shared with anyone who could be affected.

D) The results of GTA testing are most beneficial to society in a catalog of nationwide results.

176 / 214

Which of the following would be most consistent with the statements of both Scientist 1 and Scientist 2?

A) GTA is a highly controversial scientific and technological advancement that should be performed with caution.

B) GTA is meant solely for individual knowledge.

C) GTA results can be life changing and the dissemination of results needs careful consideration.

D) GTA testing is meant for patients currently showing symptoms to assist in diagnosis.

177 / 214

A survey of patients who received GTA revealed 74% of patients who tested positive for a condition relayed this information to family Which statement would account for this according to Scientist 2?

A) The patient’s GTA results were shared with family because the condition could have affected one or more person related to the patient.

B) The patient’s family was informed of the GTA results by the primary physician.

C) The patient chose to share the GTA results and discuss the condition in an effort to make an informed decision regarding treatment

D) The patient’s physician violated the Doctor- Patient confidentiality code and shared the GTA results illegally.

178 / 214

Which of the following statements is most consistent with the sentiments of Scientist 2?

A) An individual has the right to decide if GTA is necessary and his or her physician handles the resulting treatment.

B) The individual is capable of making decisions concerning personal health, and the physicians they choose to see.

C) GTA, the results, and the follow up treatment are left to the individual who may seek additional knowledge from a physician or specialist.

D) GTA results should be shared with the people who could be affected by a known condition.

179 / 214

The idea that GTA results could lead to hasty life decisions that would be detrimental to a local population is an argument put forth by which of the following?

A) Scientist 1

B) Scientist 2

C) Scientist 1 and Scientist 2

D) Neither Scientist 1 or nor Scientist 2

180 / 214

An example of GTA results: “A mother discovered her long-term sickness was due to a genetic condition and tells her three sons that they are all carriers of the condition. Each son then underwent dramatic life changes for the worse, abandoning careers and passions out of fear of developing symptoms though none of them ever did. ” This example would be best as an addition to which Scientist's argument?

A) Scientist 1

B) Scientist 2

C) Both Scientist 1 and 2

D) Neither Scientist 1 or 2

181 / 214

How does the argument of Scientist 1 relate to the argument of Scientist 2?

A) Scientist 1 argues against a controversial issue while Scientist 2 argues for the same controversial issue

B) Scientist 1 outlines a course of action and Scientist 2 offers an alternate course of action.

C) Scientist 1 gives an opinion and Scientst 2 expands on that topic

D) Scientist 1 argues for the individual while Scientist 2 argues for societal benefits

182 / 214

According to Table 1, what relationship exists between the pH of water and the corrosion rate of copper and aluminum at room temperature?

A) As the pH increases, the corrosion rate of copper increases, while the corrosion rate of aluminum decreases

B) As the pH increases, the corrosion rate of copper decreases, while the corrosion rate of aluminum increases.

C) There is no apparent relationship between the pH of the water and the corrosion rate of aluminum, but as the pH decreases, the corrosion rate of copper decreases.

D) There is no apparent relationship between the pH of the water and the corrosion rate for both copper and aluminum at room temperature.

183 / 214

Suppose the scientists tested a third type of wire made of zinc, and observed that the initial weight of the sample was 7026 g. After submerging it in room temperature water with a pH of 8.2 for 10,080 seconds, it had a corrosion rate of 1.98 x 10^-8 g/sec. Which of the following must be true?

A) The final weight of the zinc would be 4.7024 g.

B) The corrosion rate of zinc is larger than the corrosion rate of aluminum at room temperature at the same pH.

C) The corrosion rate of zinc at a pH of 7 in water of the same temperature would be greater than 1.98 x 10-8 g/sec

D) We do not have enough information to draw any conclusions about zinc.

184 / 214

What would a researcher calculate as the corrosion rate of lead, if he submerged the lead in water at a temperature of 50°C with a pH of 4.8 for a total of 1,000 seconds, if the weight of the lead decreased by a total of .003 grams throughout the period?

A) $0.30 x 10^-6 g/sec$

B) $0.33 x 10^-6 g/sec$

C) $3.00 x 10^-6 g/sec$

D) $3.30 x 10^-6 g/sec$

185 / 214

How does the corrosion rate of copper change as the temperature of the water in which it is submerged increases?

A) The corrosion rate of copper decreases across all pH levels as the temperature of the water rises.

B) The corrosion rate of copper increases at lower pH levels as the temperature rises, but decreases at higher pH levels.

C) The information provided is insufficient to determine the relationship between the temperture of the water and the corrosion rate.

D) The corrosion rate of copper increases across all pH levels as the temperature of the water rises.

186 / 214

The highest corrosion rate recorded was found:

A) in aluminum submerged in 50°C water with a pH of 8.2.

B) in copper submerged in 50°C water with a pH of 4.8.

C) in aluminum submerged in room temperature water with a pH of 7.

D) in copper submerged in room temperature water with a pH of 4.8.

187 / 214

According to Study 1, what is the general trend for V•O₂across the 2 MW? Oxygen consumption:

A) increased throughout the 2 MW

B) decreased throughout the 2 MW

C) increased until the 40 second mark and then stabilized

D) increased until the 80 second mark and then stabilized

188 / 214

According to Study 2, what would be the cadence at 3 minutes of a patient with moderate disability?

A) 60 steps/min

B) 70 steps/min

C) 85 steps/min

D) 100 steps/min

189 / 214

What measurement tool was used to collect data about V•O2 in Study 1 and Study 2?

A) Standard timer

B) Portable metabolic unit

C) Accelerometer

D) Measuring Wheel

190 / 214

If a patient had an oxygen consumption rate of 817 mL/min after walking for 4 minutes, her MS would be classified as:

A) moderate

B) severe

C) mild

D) unclassifiable

191 / 214

Researchers hypothesized that as cadence increases, there would be a corresponding rise in the V•O2 Are the data presented in Study 1 consistent with this hypothesis?

A) Yes; based on Figure 1 and Figure 2, a rise in cadence always corresponds to a rise in V•O2 rate.

B) Yes; based on Figure 1 and Figure 2, as cadence declines, V•O2 rate remains stable.

C) No; based on Figure 1 and Figure 2, there is no clear correlation between cadence and V•O2 rate.

D) No; based on Figure 1 and Figure 2, as cadence increases, V•O2 rate always decreases.

192 / 214

Studies show that an increase in V•O2 rate indicates aerobic aspects of walking, while stabilization of V•O2 indicates endurance aspects of walking. Based on the information presented in both Study 1 and Study 2, which of the following conclusions is valid?

A) Patients with moderate MS experienced aerobic effects from the 40 second mark to the 60 second mark, and endurance effects after the 80 second mark.

B) Patients with mild MS experienced aerobic effects from the 4 minute mark until the 5 minute mark, and endurance effects after the 5 minute mark.

C) Patients with severe MS experienced only aerobic effects during the 2MW.

D) Patients with moderate MS experienced only endurance effects from the 2 minute mark to the finish of the 6MW.

193 / 214

According to Table 1, Vegeto-vascular dystonia accounted for the highest percent of abnormalities on average across all five Which abnormality accounted for the next highest percent?

A) Arrhythmia

B) Neurocirculatory dystonia

C) Mitral valve prolapsed

D) Cardiac murmurs

194 / 214

Based on Figure 1, which group demonstrated the greatest improvement after the completion of the program?

A) Male Group A

B) Male Group B

C) Female Group A

D) Female Group B

195 / 214

According to Figure 1, which of the following statements best describes the predicted outcome for a group of girls with non-CVS abnormalities who will complete the program next year? Students that complete the program should expect to demonstrate:

A) a decrease of 40% in walking range.

B) a decrease of 5% or more in walking range.

C) an increase of 40% or more in walking range.

D) an increase of 5% or more in walking range.

196 / 214

According to Table 1, how many students would show characteristics of cardiopathy in a group of 500 students with CVS abnormalities in 2012- 13?

A) 12

B) 120

C) 1200

D) 12000

197 / 214

Based on Figure 1, what was the approximate difference before and after the experimental intervention in kilometers walked for males with CVS abnormalities?

A) .215

B) .415

C) .46

D) 2.16

198 / 214

Which of the following statements best represents the correlation between the data presented in Table 1?

A) As the temperature increases, the DO increases

B) As the temperature increases, the salinity decreases.

C) As the temperature increases, the DO decreases.

D) As the temperature increases, the salinity increases.

199 / 214

According to Figure 1, the percentage of calcium carbonate in Core 1 at a depth of 5cm, was closest to which of the following?

A) 7.2%

B) 6.3%

C) 5.8%

D) 4.3%

200 / 214

Which conclusion can be drawn about the relationship between sediment composition and percentage of calcium carbonate?

A) he higher the sand content of the sediment, the higher the percentage of calcium carbonate

B) The higher the sand content of the sediment, the lower the percentage of calcium carbonate

C) The higher the silt content of the sediment, the higher the percentage of calcium carbonate

D) There is no relationship between sediment composition and percentage of calcium carbonate

201 / 214

Studies found less heavy metals in Core 1 than Core 3. Based on Figure 2, which is the best explanation for this finding?

A) Sediments with a higher percentage of clay and silt absorb less heavy metals

B) Sediments with a higher percentage of clay and silt absorb more heavy metal

C) Sediment composition has no correlation to heavy metal absorption

D) Sediments with a higher percentage of sand absorb more heavy metals

202 / 214

Based on the study presented, which core appears to be closest to the industrial discharge site?

A) Core 1

B) Core 2

C) Core 3

D) Core 4

203 / 214

Man made arsenic is a common by-product of smelting metal foundrys. According to Figure 1 and Figure 2, there is most likely a metal foundry at which location?

A) Pritampura

B) Azadpur

C) Ashram

D) Loni Road

204 / 214

What is the C(MAS) of Ashram?

A) 70.12

B) 80.4

C) 89.9

D) There is not enough information to determine the C(MAS) value.

205 / 214

Arsenic is a naturally occuring element in the earth’s crust that is often released in large amounts by volcanic activity. One scientist claims there was a volcanic eruption near the Road No. 56 sampling location. Based on Figure 2, is this scientist’s conclusion valid?

A) No, because the Road No. 56 sampling location varies the least in arsenic concentration.

B) No, because the Road No. 56 location’s arsenic concentration is less than Loni Road for the ten year study.

C) Yes, because the Road No. 56 sampling location varies the least in arsenic concentration.

D) Yes, because the Road No. 56 sampling location has a two year spike that can be attributed to a volcano eruption.

206 / 214

Rain is one factor that can affect the arsenic concentration levels by cleansing the air and ground of arsenic. According to Figure 2, there was most likely a heavy wet season during which year?

A) 2011

B) 2008

C) 2006

D) 2003

207 / 214

Arsenic is deadly in large amounts, but if the arsenic concentration is below 200 g/m³ the effects are non-symptomatic and there are no detrimental health benefits recorded. If this holds true, which sampling location would be considered the safest?

A) Road No. 56

B) Azadpur

C) Ashram

D) Nariana

208 / 214

The study conducted took place in 2014, while the ten year study the scientists analyzed was from 2002 to 2012. Based on Figure 1 and Figure 2, which sampling location underwent the greatest change in arsenic concentration between the two experiments?

A) Road No. 56

B) Nariana

C) Loni Road

D) There is not enough information to make a valid conclusion

209 / 214

When the intercellular CO2 partial pressure measures 1,000 mol^-1, what will be the approximate CO2 assimilation rate?

A) 8.9 cm/s

B) 10.4 cm/s

C) 14.8 cm/s

D) 17.7 cm/s

210 / 214

According to Experiment 3, what is the the Vmax value at 20°?

A) 17 cm/s

B) 25 cm/s

C) 48 cm/s

D) 53 cm/s

211 / 214

As the temperature decreases, what happens to the Vmax value?

A) It increases only

B) It decreases only

C) It increases, then decreases

D) It decreases, then increases

212 / 214

The photosynthesis rate in plants is highest when the rate of dark respiration is the highest. What is the CO2 assimilation rate when the photosynthesis rate is highest?

A) 4.9 cm/s

B) 6.3 cm/s

C) 7.8 cm/s

D) 9.1 cm/s

213 / 214

According to Experiment 1, what is the intercellular CO2 partial pressure when the temperature is equal to 25° C and the assimilation rate is 10 cm/s?

A) $154 mol^-1$

B) $206 mol^-1$

C) $468 mol^-1$

D) $800 mol^-1$

214 / 214

Scientists hypothesize that the decrease in the CO2 assimilation rate associated with higher temperatures is in part a response to a greater increase in the rate of carboxylation and the rate of dark respiration at higher Does the data from Experiments 1, 2, and 3 support this hypothesis?

A) Yes, because at 25° C, the CO2 assimilation rate

B) Yes, because at 25° C, the CO2 assimilation rate begins to decrease while the rate of dark respiration and the rate of carboxylation increase at a faster pace.

C) No, because at 25° C, the CO2 assimilation rate begins to decrease while the rate of dark respiration and the rate of carboxylation stabilize.

D) No, because at 25° C, the CO2 assimilation rate begins to decrease while the rate of dark respiration and the rate of carboxylation increase at a higher pace.

Your score is

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60 QUESTIONS

60 MINUTES

Solve each problem, choose the correct answer, and then bubble in the letter corresponding to that answer choice.

You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You may use your calculator for any problems you choose, but some of the problems may best be done without using a calculator.

40 QUESTIONS

35 MINUTES

There are several passages in this test. Each passage is accompanied by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and bubble in the corresponding answer choice. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary.

Science Test

There are several passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and bubble in the corresponding answer choice. You may refer to the passages as often as necessary.